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Friday, August 24, 2007
Thursday, August 16, 2007
Exam 70-297: Designing a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Active Directory and Network Infrastructure Practice Questions
1. A company has six offices across the country, and each office has
administrators who look after system maintenance and backups. The major IT
decisions, such as domain panning, purchases, and security policies, are made at
the head office. What kind of administrative model is the company following?A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Hybrid
D. OutsourcedAnswer B is correct. When there is local administrative staff at remote
locations but major IT decisions are taken at the head office, a decentralized
model is in use.2. A company has four different offices located in four
cities in California and nearby states. Each office is independently managed by
the local IT staff. What type of geographical model is in place?A.
Local
B. National
C. Regional
D. InternationalAnswer C is correct. When a company is located in several nearby states, it uses a regional geographical model.
3. You have started the analysis of the current network
infrastructure of a company and are in the process of preparing analysis
documentation. The company has 16 offices located across the country. Which of
the following would be the most important factor when analyzing the network
performance of the interoffice connectivity?A. Number of subnets in each
office
B. Number of users in each office
C. Speed of LAN connections
D. Speed of WAN links
Answer D is correct. When a company is spread
across the country, different vendors may be involved in providing WAN
connectivity. The type and speed of the WAN links is an important factor when
analyzing the interoffice connectivity.4. You need a Windows-based tool
that can be used to monitor the network performance of each critical server
individually. You do not have time or budget to purchase any other software
application for this purpose. Which of the built-in tools is best suited for
analyzing network traffic to and from each server?A. Performance Console
B. Network Monitor
C. Task Manager
D. System MonitorAnswer B is
correct. The built-in Network Monitor can be used to analyze traffic to and from
a single Windows 2000 or Windows Server 2003 server. If you need to monitor the
entire network from a single server, you will need the full version of Network
Monitor included with Microsoft Systems Management Server.5. When analyzing
the IP addressing scheme used on the current network infrastructure, which of
the following is the least important consideration?A. IP address range in
each subnet
B. Subnet mask for each subnet
C. Names of DNS servers for
each subnet
D. Default gateway in each subnetAnswer C is correct. When
you are analyzing the IP-addressing scheme, the names of servers providing
network services, such as DNS and WINS, are not as important as determining how
IP address space has been divided to accommodate IP subnets.6. You are
analyzing the current Windows Server 2003 network for an organization. The
organization has two Unix servers in one of the network segments. The
development department uses these servers for testing software applications. The
servers are placed in their own separate domain. What type of trust relationship
might exist between the Windows domain and the Unix domain?A. Realm trust
B. External trust
C. Forest trust
D. Shortcut trustAnswer A is
correct. A realm trust is created between Windows Server 2003 Active Directory
domain and a non-Microsoft domain that uses Kerberos 5 as security protocol.7. You are the systems administrator for your company, which deals with
development of software products. The company is expanding and wants to open new
offices in London, England, and Singapore. The company will initially be
exporting its products from the head office in the United States. Local staff
will independently handle the new domains once they are implemented. The local
country managers will make decisions about account and password policies. You
have been asked to analyze the design requirements of the Active Directory
domains for the new offices, which will be connected to the head office. Which
of the following is your best option for designing new domains?A. Create a
new forest for each of the new locations.
B. Add the new domains to the
existing domain tree.
C. Create new domains as subdomains of the head
office.
D. Create new sites for the domain at the head office.Answer B
is correct. It is best to create new domains in the existing domain tree. Since
there is no need for a new separate forest, the existing domain structure can be
expanded by adding new domains to the domain tree. You should try to keep the
Active Directory structure to a single forest as much as possible.8. You
have been asked to design an Active Directory structure for a fast-growing
company that is planning to open six offices across the country. You were
talking to the IT manager, who indicated that he wants each office to have its
own Security policies. He was not sure whether it calls for a different domain
or a different forest for each location. Which of the following is a good reason
to create a new forest? Choose two answers.A. When you have different
security policies
B. When local administrators are available
C. When you
need an isolated unit within the company
D. When each business unit needs
independent control of resources
E. When two companies have merged but each
wants to retain autonomy over its networksAnswers C and E are correct. As
much as possible, you should keep the forest structure to a single forest. A new
forest should be created only when some unit of the company needs isolation from
the rest of the company. A different forest may also be a good choice when two
companies have merged and each wants to retain autonomy over its IT
infrastructure.9. Which of the following is not an advantage of keeping the
Active Directory network to a single domain?A. A single domain is scalable
and manageable
B. Centralized administration is possible
C.
Organizational units can be used to delegate administration
D. Business
units can be isolated according to their security needsAnswer D is correct.
If you need to isolate business units for reasons of security requirements or
granting autonomy over their respective resources, it is better to create
separate domains for each business unit.10. You have been asked to upgrade
an existing Windows 2000 Active Directory domain to a Windows Server 2003
domain. Which of the following utilities should be run before the upgrade
process can actually start? Select two answers.A. adprep /forestprep
B.
adprep /domainprep
C. adprep /dnsprep
D. adprep /gcprep
E. adprep
/schemaprepAnswers A and B are correct. The Active Directory Preparation
Tool adprep.exe should be run on Windows 2000 domain controllers to prepare them
for Windows Server 2003 Active Directory. The adprep /forestprep command adds
new features to the forest schema. The adprep /domainprep adds domain-specific
features to the Windows 2000 domain.11. You have finalized the design of
the Active Directory domain structure for a company and are now in the process
of designing the OU structure. The IT manager wants you to create a separate OU
for each location of the company, but the resources at each location should be
grouped according to the departments of the company. Which of the following OU
models should you choose?A. Location-based
B. Function-based
C.
Organization-based
D. Location-, then organization-basedAnswer D is
correct. The IT manager is asking you to follow the "location, then
organization" model for creating OUs. The top-level OUs should be based on
locations of the company. Beneath each location-based OU, you should create OUs
for each department of the company.12. Which of the following is the main
purpose of creating Organizational Units?A. Delegation of control
B. To
grant resource access permissions
C. To create Active Directory sites
D.
To localize network trafficAnswer A is correct. The main reason for
creating Organizational Units is to delegate control of these units to local
administrators. Remember that an OU is the smallest administrative unit for
which you can delegate control. Other reasons for creating OUs are limiting
visibility of objects in the Active Directory and implementing Group Policies
effectively.13. The network you are analyzing contains Window NT 4.0 and
Windows 2000 domain controllers. You want to install Windows Server 2003 domain
controllers and create two new domains. The existing domain controllers will
remain in the network. Which of the following domain functional levels can you
have?A. Windows 2000 Mixed
B. Windows 2000 Native
C. Windows Server
2003 Interim
D. Windows Server 2003Answer A is correct. The Windows
2000 Mixed domain functional level allows a Windows Server 2003 domain
controller to interact with Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4.0 domain controllers.14. Which of the following operations master roles is required for creating
and deleting domains from a forest?A. PDC emulator
B. Schema master
C. Domain naming master
D. Relative ID master
E. Infrastructure
masterAnswer C is correct. The domain controller holding the role of domain
naming master must be online when domains are added or removed from a forest.15. You are designing a solution for cross-forest resource access for a
Windows Server 2003-based Active Directory network. The network consists of
three forests, and trust relationships have already been created. Which of the
following logon options should be used by users to log on to trusted forests?A. Universal principal name
B. Username and password
C. Username and
domain name
D. Domain name and passwordAnswer A is correct. Users need
UPN names to log on to domains in trusted forests. The UPN name of a user
contains the user account name and the domain name. It looks like an email
addressfor example, myname@mydomain is a UPN name.16. You want to design
Universal groups to allow users from one domain to access resources in another
trusted domain. When you ask one of the administrators to create a Universal
group for testing, he reports that this option is not available on any of the
six domain controllers in the network. What could be the reason?A. The
administrator does not have rights to create Universal groups.
B. The domain
functional level is not Windows Server 2003 or Windows 2000 Native.
C. The
forest functional level is not Windows Server 2003.
D. Universal groups are
available only in forests that are not in domains.Answer B is correct.
Universal groups are available only if the domain functional level is either
Windows Server 2003 or Windows 2000 Native. Windows 2000 Mixed or Windows Server
2003 Interim levels do not support Universal groups.17. You have created a
diagram showing different servers that will host Internet services for your
organization. Two firewalls will separate these servers from the internal
network and the Internet. How should you assign IP addresses to these servers?A. Through APIPA addressing
B. By placing a DHCP server in the perimeter
network
C. By using alternate IP address configuration
D. By manually
configuring IP addressesAnswer D is correct. All critical servers that host
Internet services, such as a web server, DNS server, mail server, etc., should
be configured with static (manual) IP addresses. This is because these servers
usually need registered IP addresses.18. A Windows Server 2003 computer is
designated as a file server in the Active Directory domain. This server is
located in the FileServ OU. The FileServ OU is part of the NY domain located at
a New York site. Group policies are linked to the domain, site, and NY OU. The
file server itself has a GPO linked to it. Identify the correct processing order
of GPOs.A. Local, domain, site, and OU
B. Domain, site, local, and OU
C. Local, site, domain, and OU
D. OU, site, domain, and localAnswer
C is correct. Local GPO is processed first, followed by site, domain, and
Organizational Unit GPOs. The GPO linked to the site overrides the conflicting
settings in the local GPO. Similarly, the GPO linked to the domain overrides
conflicting settings at the site level. Domain settings are overridden by
settings in the GPO linked to the OU.19. What happens if an OU is linked to
multiple GPOs from several sources?A. Only the first GPO is processed.
B. The administrator can choose which GPO should be processed.
C. The
GPO with maximum settings is processed.
D. All GPOs are processed starting
from the lowest GPO in the list.Answer D is correct. When multiple GPOs are
linked to the OU, all GPOs are processed, starting from the lowest GPO. However,
the administrator can change the processing order of the GPOs.20. According
to Microsoft recommendations, which of the following groups should be used to
assign resource access permissions?A. Domain Local
B. Global
C.
Universal
D. Any of aboveAnswer A is correct. Microsoft recommends that
resource access permissions should be assigned to Domain Local groups. Users
should be placed in Global groups, Global groups should be placed in Universal
groups. and Universal groups should be placed in Domain Local groups. This
simplifies administration of resources and helps troubleshoot resource access
problems.21. One of the departments in your organization wants to design
its own account policies due to security requirements for its development
projects. Which of the following is the best option to accomplish this?A.
Place the department in a separate OU
B. Place the department in a separate
domain
C. Place the department in a separate site
D. Create a new forest
for the departmentAnswer B is correct. Account policies are applied at the
domain level and are effective in the entire domain. You cannot have two
different account policies in a single domain. Creating a new forest can also
solve the problem, but there is no reason to do so.22. Which of the
following networks can use Network Address Translation for Internet
connectivity?A. A network with 1 subnet, 120 client computers, 2 domain
controllers, a DNS server, a web server, and a mail server
B. A network with
2 subnets, 60 client computers in each subnet, 2 domain controllers, and 2 DNS
servers
C. A network with 3 subnets, 80 client computers in each subnet, 4
domain controllers, a DNS server, and a WINS server
D. A network with 4
subnets, 45 client computers in each subnet, 2 domain controllers, a DNS server,
a web server, and a mail serverAnswer A is correct. Network Address
Translation can be used only for small organizations that do not have any
network segments. Web servers, DNS servers, and mail servers can exist behind
NAT servers and still be visible from the Internet using registered IP
addresses.23. A US-based company has registered a second-level domain name
as catsupplies.com. This domain will be
available for public access on the Internet. The company wants to keep its
internal Active Directory domain structure entirely separate from the external
domain. Which of the following DNS names should you choose for the internal
network of the company?A. int.catsupplies.com
B. us.catsupplies.com
C. catsupplies.net
D. internal.catsupplies.comAnswer C is correct. All other
names are subdomains of the registered domain name. If you want to keep internal
and external namespaces separate, the only option from the given choices is
catsupplies.net.24. A junior administrator assigned with the task of
managing account policies is trying to figure out where the Account and Password
Policies are stored on the domain controller. Can you tell her where these
policy settings are configured?A. Default domain controllers policy
B.
Default forest policy
C. Default domain policy
D. Default site policyAnswer C is correct. Password and account policies for the domain are
located in the default domain policy GPO. These policies are applied to all
objects in the domain and cannot be overridden by other policies.25. You
are designing a plan for controlling replication of the Active Directory
database between two domain controllers located in separate locations connected
by WAN links. What do you need to create? Select two answers.A. Sites
B. Site links
C. IP subnets
D. Subnet links
E. Bridgehead
serversAnswers A and B are correct. You need to configure sites and site
links for controlling replication between domain controllers at remote locations
connected by WAN links. You can configure replication to occur when other
network traffic is low.26. What needs to be configured if you disable site
link transitivity between remote sites?A. Site link costs
B. Bridgehead
servers
C. Site link bridges
D. Preferred Bridgehead serversAnswer
B is correct. Site link transitivity is enabled by default. If you disable site
link transitivity for a replication protocol, you will need to configure site
link bridges between sites. Site link transitivity should be disabled in rare
circumstances.27. Which of the following should be considered a good reason
to place a Global Catalog server in a site? Select all correct answers.A.
When there are less than 100 users at a site
B. When there are more than 100
users at a site
C. When some applications need to query the Global Catalog
D. When the sites are connected by slow WAN links
E. When there are a
number of domain controllers at a siteAnswers B, C, D, and E are correct. A
site needs a Global Catalog server if any of these is correct. Besides this, the
number of Global Catalog servers should be half the number of domain controllers
at a site. This calculation is important for sites that have multiple domain
controllers and a large number of users at a single, large site.28. Your IT
manager wants you to choose a server from the existing server hardware to
install the Windows Server 2003 operating system. You need to calculate the
processor requirements for a site with nearly 900 users. Which of the following
processor configurations can be used?A. One 850 MHz Processor and 512 MB
RAM
B. One 850 MHz Processor and 1 GB RAM
C. Dual 850 MHz processor and
1 GB RAM
D. Quad 850 MHz processor and 2 GB RAMAnswer C is correct.
Microsoft recommends that for 500 to 999 users, you should use a dual processor
server with a minimum of 850 MHz speed and at least 1 GB RAM.29. What is
the best place to install domain controllers within a site?A. At a place
where a large number of users are working
B. At a place that is physically
secure
C. At a place that is easily accessible by all users
D. At a
place that is difficult to reachAnswer B is correct. Domain controllers and
other servers that provide critical network services should be placed in
physically secure locations. Physical security is one of the main reasons behind
creating server rooms or Network Operations Centers (NOCs).30. You are
designing the DNS structure for a company. The company needs maximum protection
for its DNS zone data so that it is difficult for hackers and attackers to get
information about names and IP address used inside the company. Which of the
following types of DNS zones should you suggest?A. Active
Directory-integrated zones
B. Standard primary zones
C. Standard
secondary zones
D. Stub zonesAnswer A is correct. Active
Directory-Integrated zones offer maximum possible security for DNS zone data.
The zone data is stored in the Active Directory on domain controllers and
replicated in encrypted form along with other Active Directory information.31. You have decided to analyze the current performance levels of the
existing DNS servers in the network. Which of the following performance counters
should you monitor? Select all correct answers.A. Total queries received
per second
B. Total responses sent per second
C. Average queries
received per second
D. Average responses sent per second
Answers A, B,
C, and D are all correct. The Performance console includes the given counters
for the DNS object. You should create a performance log and analyze the logs to
see whether any of the existing DNS servers are experiencing performance
bottlenecks.32. You are designing an Active Directory infrastructure for a
medium-sized organization that wants to have an Internet presence. You are
currently working on the IP address allocation plan. How should you define
scopes on DHCP servers for allocating IP addresses to file servers, print
servers, and printers so that they get the same address every time they are
started?A. By assigning static IP addresses
B. By DHCP scope
reservations
C. By DHCP scope options
D. By using alternate addressesAnswer B is correct. The servers and other equipment configured to get IP
addresses from the DHCP server should have address reservations on the DHCP
server so that they always get the same IP address.33. You are designing an
Active Directory infrastructure for a small organization that has nearly 120
computers in a single network segment. You are currently working on the IP
address allocation plan. How can you ensure that the clients will continue to
communicate on the network and use the Internet even if the DHCP server is not
available?A. By using DHCP server options
B. By using address
reservations
C. By using Automatic Private IP Addressing
D. By using
alternate addressingAnswer D is correct. Alternate IP addressing is used
when the clients are configured to use a DHCP server for IP address assignment
and it is not available. The client will use the IP address configured as the
alternate address. The alternate addresses are usually in the same subnet range
that has been configured in the DHCP scope.34. Which of the following
should you specify in your guidelines for naming computer accounts for servers?
Select two answers.A. The name should identify the server and its purpose.
B. The name should identify the parent domain and OU of the server.
C.
The name should identify the administrator of the server.
D. The name should
identify the location of the server.
E. The name should identify the domain
controller where the account exists.Answers A and D are correct. The
account names for servers should identify their location and purpose. For
example, a print server located in a San Francisco office can be named as
SFPrint1 (which stands for San Francisco Print server 1).35. While
designing a remote access solution for a large company, you are planning to use
the Internet as the medium. Your plan includes installing VPN servers so that
long-distance telephone charges can be saved for remote users. The IT manager
has asked you about some advantages of VPN over dial-up? Which of the following
is not an advantage of using VPN?A. Support for large number of users
B. Additional processing overheads
C. Internet is used as the medium
D. Scalability is better than dial-upAnswer B is correct. Remote access
using VPN adds additional processing overheads for servers because the server
has to perform encryption and decryption of data packets sent and received from
the Internet. If you are planning to use older hardware as VPN servers, you
should carefully determine the processing needs for the VPN server.36. You
are designing a DNS infrastructure for a company that already has a mix of
Windows and Unix DNS servers in place. The company wants to retain all the
existing DNS servers, including the Unix DNS servers. Security of zone data is
the main concern for the company. Which of the following DNS servers will
support secure dynamic updates for DNS zones?A. Windows Server 2003
B.
Windows 2000
C. Windows NT 4.0
D. UNIX BIND 9.1.0
E. UNIX BIND 8.2Answers A and B are correct. Only Windows Server 2003 and Windows 2000 DSN
implementations support secure dynamic updates. Secure dynamic updates are
supported in the Active Directory-integrated zone that is available only in
Windows Server 2003 and Windows 2000.37. Several users in the network have
reported in the last hour that when they try to connect to the database server,
they get connected to an unknown web site on the Internet. What kind of DNS
attack has been launched against your DNS servers?A. Footprinting
B. IP
Spoofing
C. Denial of service
D. Man in the MiddleAnswer D is
correct. The Man-in-the-Middle attack happens when an attacker is able to
redirect DNS queries to another DNS server that is under the attacker's control.
The attacker launches this type of attack by modifying some of the resource
records in the zone database. The zone is actually "polluted" with invalid
resource records.38. You want to design a remote access solution for a
large company that will be using several remote access servers. You want to
centralize authentication of remote users. How can you draft the plan?A.
Use one of the domain controllers to authenticate remote clients
B. Use a
RADIUS server for authentication
C. Designate one of the remote access
servers as authentication server
D. Configure one of the domain controllers
as RADIUS clientAnswer B is correct. Authentication of remote access
clients can be centralized using a RADIUS server. Remote access policies can be
configured on a RADIUS server for all remote access servers. Remote access
servers are configured as RADIUS clients.39. People who want to connect to
the remote access server are using a variety of Windows operating systems. While
you have denied access to users who still have Windows 95 and Windows for
Workgroups, the company policy states that unless there is a security risk,
users should be allowed to connect. You want to finalize MS-CHAP2 as the
authentication protocol. Which of the following operating systems will not
support this protocol? Select three answers.A. Windows XP
B. Windows
2000 Professional
C. Windows NT 4.0 SP 4
D. Windows 98
E. Windows NT
3.51
F. Windows 95Answers D, E, and F are correct. Windows 95, Windows
NT 3.51, and Windows 98 do not support MS-CHAP2 authentication protocol.40.
You have been tasked to design a remote access solution for a company that deals
with highly confidential data. You plan to use the most secure authentication
protocol for authentication of remote clients. Which of the following is the
most secure of all authentication protocols available with Windows Server 2003?A. EAP
B. MS-CHAPv1
C. MS-CHAPv2
D. CHAP
E. PAPAnswer A
is correct. The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is the most secure of
all authentication protocols available with Windows Server 2003. One of the
requirements of this protocol is that the remote access server must be a member
of an Active Directory domain.
Exam 70-270: Installing, Configuring, and Administering Microsoft Windows XP Professional Practice Questions
1. You have a computer with 233 MHz, CPU speed, 256 MB
RAM, and about 1200 MB of free hard disk space. The computer has a network
adapter for which you have a driver disk. You may wish to install Windows XP
Professional on this computer. Which of the following components will you need
to upgrade for a successful installation?A. CPU
B. RAM
C. Hard disk
D. Network adapterAnswer C is correct. You need at least 1.5 GB (1500 MB) free hard disk space in order to install Windows XP Professional. You should either add another hard disk or free up some more space in the existing disk.
2. You wish to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that is already running Windows 98. You do not want to remove Windows 98 because some applications will not work with the new operating system. Which of the following filesystems should you choose during installation if the computer will be dual-booting with the two operating systems?
A. FAT
B. FAT32
C. NTFS
D. Any of the aboveAnswer B is correct. Windows 98 does not recognize the NTFS filesystem. When you boot the computer using Windows 98, you will not be able to access any partitions that are formatted using NTFS.
3. You installed Windows XP Professional on a new computer. The system worked well for a few weeks and then suddenly stopped working and did not let you log on. What could be the reason?
A. You did not accept the licensing agreement during installation.
B. You did not enter the correct product key.
C. You did not format any partition with NTFS.
D. You did not activate the product.Answer D is correct. The retail versions of Windows XP Professional must be activated within 30 days of installation.
4. Which of the following Windows operating systems cannot be directly upgraded to Windows XP Professional? Select two answers.
A. Windows NT Server 4.0
B. Windows ME
C. Windows 98
D. Windows NT Workstation 3.51
E. Windows NT Workstation 4.0Answers A and D are correct. Windows NT Server 4.0 can be upgraded either to Windows 2000 Server or Windows Server 2003, but not to Windows XP Professional. Windows NT Workstation 3.51 must first be upgraded to Windows NT Workstation 4.0.
5. Your network administrator has given you the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM and asked you to upgrade your Windows 98 computer to Windows XP Professional. You have located the \i386 folder on the D: drive of your computer (that is, the CD-ROM drive). Which of the following commands can you use to start the upgrade process?
A. d: \i386\winnt32.exe
B. d: \i386\winnt.exe
C. d: \i386\winnt32.exe /upgrade
D. d: \i386\winnt.exe /upgradeAnswer A is correct. The winnt32.exe command is used to upgrade Windows 98, Windows NT Workstation 4.0, and Windows ME computers to Windows XP Professional. The winnt.exe command is used for fresh installations from MS-DOS and Windows 3.x computers. The commands given in answers C and D are invalid.
6. Before you start installing Windows XP Professional on your Windows NT Workstation 4.0 computer, you may want to check whether the currently installed hardware and software will be compatible with the new operating system. Which of the following commands can you use to accomplish this?
A. winnt.exe /checkupgradeonly
B. winnt.exe /checkcompatibility
C. winnt32.exe /checkupgradeonly
D. winnt32.exe /checkcompatibilityAnswer C is correct. You can check the compatibility of the existing hardware and software by using the winnt32.exe command with the /checkupgradeonly parameter.
7. As the network administrator of a small company, you have been asked to deploy Windows XP Professional on 25 new computers. You have also checked that all computers meet the minimum hardware requirements. You may wish to use the Setup Manager to generate answer files for automating the installation process. All users will be installing the operating system themselves by using the answer files that you provide. You do want users to have minimum interaction with the installation process. Which of the following options should you use in the Setup Manager in the User Interaction Level page?
A. Provide Defaults
B. Fully Automated
C. Hide Pages
D. Read OnlyAnswer B is correct. The Fully Automated option in the User Interaction Level page is intended to minimize the user interaction during the unattended installation.
8. The network administrator in your company has asked for your help in installing Windows XP Professional on 50 new computers using the Remote Installation Service (RIS). Which of the following services must be running in the network for RIS-based installations? Select three answers.
A. RIS on client computers
B. Active Directory Service
C. DNS service
D. Internet Information Service (IIS)
E. DHCP serviceAnswers B, C, and E are correct. RIS installations need Active Directory, DNS, and DHCP services running on the network. Internet Information Services are not required.
9. You configured NTFS permissions on a folder for a group of users and later moved that folder to another partition. Now everyone on the network can access the folder and all files within that folder. What could be the possible reason?
A. NTFS permissions are lost when folders are moved.
B. The folder has been moved to a FAT partition.
C. The folder should have been copied instead of moved.
D. Some user has removed all NTFS permissions from the folder.Answer B is correct. NTFS permissions are lost when a file or folder is moved to a FAT or FAT32 partition.
10. Sarah is a member of HRusers and ACCusers groups. The NTFS permissions for a folder named Directory are Allow Read and Execute for the HRusers group and Allow Modify for the ACCusers group. What are Sarah's effective permissions on the Directory folder?
A. Read
B. Read and Execute
C. Modify
D. Full ControlAnswer C is correct. NTFS permissions are cumulative when a user is a member of more than one group with the exception of the Deny permission, which overrides all other permissions.
11. Allen has been granted Allow Full Control share permission on a network folder named Userfiles. NTFS permissions for the same folder are set to Allow Read and Execute for the HRusers group. Allen is a member of the HRusers group. What are Allen's effective permissions when he tries to access the Userfiles folder from the network?
A. Full Control
B. Read
C. Read and Execute
D. Deny Full ControlAnswer C is correct. The most restrictive of NTFS and share permissions are applied when a shared folder is accessed from the network.
12. Gary wants to share a folder on his computer so that other users on the network can read and make modifications to his work. He wants some users to only read the files and others to read and modify them. When he tries to set permissions for the shared folder, he may not able to do that. What could be the reason?
A. Gary does not have sufficient rights to set share permissions.
B. Simple File Sharing is turned on.
C. Gary is not a member of the Administrators group.
D. Gary should set NTFS permissions first.Answer B is correct. You cannot set share permissions when Simple File Sharing is turned on. In Simple File Sharing, everyone gets equal access to the shared folders.
13. Which of the following features in Windows NT Professional allows you to continue working on documents even when you are not connected to the network?
A. Encrypting File System
B. Shared Folder Permissions
C. Fast User Switching
D. Offline FilesAnswer D is correct. Offline Files feature in Windows XP Professional allows you to keep working on documents even when you are not connected to the network. Fast User Switching must be turned off in order to use this feature.
14. You want to add a printer to your computer that is directly connected to a network port. Which of the following procedures must you follow to install the printer?
A. Select Local Printer Attached To This Computer and create a New Port when prompted.
B. Install as a network printer and then connect it to the network port.
C. Use the Automatically Detect My PnP Printer option.
D. Install as a Network Printer and select the LPT1 port.Answer A is correct. When installing a printer that is directly connected to one of the network ports, you should select Local Printer Attached To This Computer and then create a new port by either specifying the printer name or its IP address.
15. You have installed a new color printer in your department. The per-page cost of color printing is very high. You do not want your department's budget to grow due to unwanted color printing. Which of the following options can you use to limit the printing of color pages to selected users only? Select two answers. Each answer is a part of the complete solution.A. Create two ports for the printer, one for black printing and other for color printing.
B. Create two user groups for printing, one for black printing and the other for color printing.
C. Configure two separate logical printers, one for black printing and the other for color printing.
D. Send an email to all users saying that users printing unnecessary color copies will be billed.
E. Teach all users how to send color prints and how to send black prints.
Answer C is correct. You should first create two user groups, one that will print in color and the other that will print in black. Then, create two separate logical printers, one for color printing and the other for black printing. When this is done, you should configure permissions separately for each group.16. The printer used in your office is heavily loaded and your manager has ordered two more similar printers. You have been tasked with the job of installing and configuring these new printers. Which of the following features can you use to share the printing load in your office?
A. Install new printers and configure availability hours for each printer.
B. Install new printers and configure printer pooling.
C. Install new printers and create three identical logical printers.
D. Make three equal groups of users and assign each group a separate printer.
Answer B is correct. When you have identical printers, you can share the printing load among several printers using the printer pooling feature in Windows XP Professional. All printers in the pool must be connected to the same port.17. You have two identical printers in your office. Paper is jammed in one of the printers and you feel that you will have to call customer service to correct the printer problem. There are about 35 documents in the printer queue waiting to print. What can you do to temporarily resolve the problem so that users can continue to send documents for printing?
A. Redirect print jobs to the second printer.
B. Ask the users to cancel their documents and send them to the second printer.
C. Save the jobs in the spool folder of the print server.
D. Change the printer priority to its lowest value.Answer A is correct. When you have two or more identical printers and one of them stops functioning, you can redirect the faulty printer's print jobs to another, identical printer. This action is transparent to the users and is performed from the print server.
18. You have three disks on a Windows XP Professional computer and you want to take advantage of Striped volumes. What is the first step you should take before you can configure a Striped volume?
A. Make sure that all disks have equal free space.
B. Convert all disks to Dynamic disks.
C. Format all disks with NTFS.
D. Make sure that all disks have equal unallocated space.Answer B is correct. Dynamic disks only offer Simple, Spanned, and Striped volumes. Striped volumes are created by using unallocated space from two or more Dynamic disks. Striped volumes are not fault-tolerant and cannot be extended.
19. Most of the users on your network store documents on your computer, and you have configured file compression on the drive that is used by network users. Since users keep saving unnecessary documents that are not related to their jobs, your manager has asked you to use the disk quota feature to limit usage of disk space. Which of the following is true about disk quotas and file compression? Select three answers.
A. Disk quotas and file compression cannot be used together.
B. Disk quotas can only be configured on NTFS volumes.
C. Disk quotas can be enabled only for user groups.
D. Disk quotas can be enabled only for individual users.
E. Disk quotas take into account the size of the uncompressed files.Answers B, D, and E are correct. Disk quotas work only on NTFS volumes, are configured on a per-user basis, and the uncompressed size of the files is taken into account when calculating space used by users.
20. Which of the following are features of the NTFS compression in Windows XP Professional? Select two answers.
A. Works on FAT volumes
B. Works on NTFS volumes
C. Works with file encryption
D. Individual files can be compressed
E. Works only on Dynamic disksAnswers B and D are correct. NTFS compression works only on NTFS volumes and can compress individual files. Folder compression, on the other hand, works on both FAT and NTFS volumes and can compress encrypted files but not individual files.
21. Your computer has a 120 GB hard disk divided into two partitions: drive C is 80 GB and NTFS and drive D is 40 GB and also NTFS. You compressed some files in the Documents folder on the C drive last month. Now, drive C is nearly full and you have moved the files from the Documents folder to the Docscopy folder on drive D, which is not compressed. What will be the compression state of the files after this action?
A. The files will get uncompressed.
B. The files will remain compressed.
C. The files will remain compressed but will uncompress when users open them.
D. There will be no change in the compression state.Answer A is correct. When compressed files or folders are moved from one NTFS volume to another NTFS volume, they acquire the compression state of the destination folder. In this case, the destination folder that is not compressed is Docscopy.
22. Your computer is directly connected to the Internet, and you have been surfing the Web ever since you installed Windows XP Professional on it. It seems that there are a lot of temporary and junk files stored in the hard disk of your computer by various web sites. Which of the following utilities is the best to use to clear up the disk space?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. Check Disk
C. Disk Cleanup
D. Recovery ConsoleAnswer C is correct. The Disk Cleanup utility removes temporary files from the temp folder of the computer, clears the computer cache, deletes all temporary Internet files, and empties the Recycle Bin.
23. You have installed a second network adapter on your Windows XP Professional computer, but the operating system does not recognize it, although the adapter is a PnP device. How can you properly install the adapter?
A. From the update driver in Device Manager.
B. From the Add Hardware wizard in Control Panel.
C. Restart the computer two to three times more until the operating system detects the adapter.
D. Install the driver from "Add or Remove Programs" in the Control Panel.Answer B is correct. The Add Hardware wizard can be used to install PnP devices that are not automatically detected by the operating system. When prompted, you may supply the driver disk for the adapter to install the device driver files.
24. Your manager received an email from one of your vendors that the newer versions of drivers for the sound cards installed on computers in your office are now available. You follow your manager's orders and download a new driver and install it on your computer first in order to test it. When you restart the computer, the sound card stops working. What are your options?
A. Write an email back to the vendor asking for help.
B. Use the Update Driver feature to install the driver directly from the vendor's web site.
C. Uninstall the sound card and install it again with the old driver.
D. Use the Roll Back Driver feature to uninstall the new driver and install the old driver.Answer D is correct. The Roll Back Driver feature is used to uninstall a newly installed device driver and install the previously installed driver. Remember that this feature is not available for printer drivers.
25. It has come to your notice that some users in your office keep installing untested drivers for the purpose of improving sound quality on their desktops. You have responded to a few calls to address problems where users have installed such drivers. How can you prevent users from installing untested and unsigned device drivers on their computers in the future?
A. Define a written company policy so that no one is allowed to install any driver without your permission.
B. Configure driver signing options in each computer to block installation of unsigned drivers.
C. Configure driver signing options in each computer to warn before unsigned drivers are installed.
D. Write a script that will not allow any user to install any device driver on his computers.Answer B is correct. The driver signing option can be set to block installation of unsigned device drivers on users' desktops. As an administrator, you can make this option the system default on every computer. Another way to prevent this is to take away the Load And Unload Device Drivers user rights from the users.
26. Your company is a marketing enterprise that has 10 telecommuters who carry their laptops with them for presentations. Some of these employees complain that their monitors turn off too quickly when they are doing presentations. How can you fix the problem?
A. Turn off the Hibernate mode on these notebooks.
B. Turn off the Standby mode on these notebooks.
C. Use the Presentation power scheme.
D. Use the Home/Office power scheme.Answer C is correct. The Presentation power scheme in Power Options does not turn off power to the monitor or the hard disk, so that the notebook remains powered on at all times during the presentation.
27. Which of the following actions are considered good for a secure Windows XP Professional computer?
A. Disable the InitialUser account
B. Disable the Guest account
C. Disable the Administrator account
D. Disable the HelpAssistant accountAnswer B is correct. The built-in Guest account must be disabled for a Windows XP Professional computer for creating a secure working environment. Although this account is disabled by default, you must make sure that it is not enabled by some previous administrator.
28. When the passwords are required to meet complexity requirements, which of the following criteria must be met when using passwords? Select three answers. Each answer is a part of the complete solution.
A. Passwords must be at least six characters long.
B. Passwords must contain a part of the username.
C. Passwords must contain uppercase letters.
D. Passwords must contain lowercase letters.
E. Passwords must not have any numerals.Answers A, C, and D are correct. Complexity requirements for passwords means that passwords must be at least six characters long, must contain uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numerals and/or special characters, and must not contain any part of the user's full name or account name. Any three of these criteria should be met in order to maintain complex passwords. In addition to this, password history must be enforced.
29. Your company has received a new accounts application and you are in charge of testing and installing the application on the computers of the accounts department. This application needs a special account to run. You created a new user account for the application. Which of the following passwords options should you select for the application? Select two answers.
A. User must change password at next logon.
B. User cannot change password.
C. Password never expires.
D. Account is disabled.
E. All of the above.Answers B and C are correct. Passwords for applications that run with a local user account should not expire. You should also select the User Can Not Change Password option.
30. You have installed Windows XP Professional on a computer that already has a Windows NT Workstation 4.0 and is made by the system to dual boot between these two operating systems. The problem is that when you start the system and you are not watching the startup process, Windows NT Workstation 4.0 automatically loads. You want to start the system automatically with Windows XP Professional if you do not get a chance to select the operating system. Which of the following is the safest way to accomplish this?
A. Open Notepad and change the BOOT.INI file. Increase the wait time for Windows NT Workstation 4.0 and decrease the wait time for Windows XP Professional.
B. Create a second BOOT.INI file with only the Windows XP Professional operating system and replace the original BOOT.INI file.
C. Use the Startup And Recovery page in System Properties in the Control Panel and change the default OS to Windows XP Professional.
D. Use the regedit.exe command to edit registry and change the default operating system.Answer C is correct. The default operating system in a dual-boot system should preferably be changed from the Startup And Recovery tab that is available in the System Properties page of the Control Panel. It is not recommended that you use any other methods such as editing registry, to change the default operating system.
31. You opened a file in MS Word 2000 and started working on it. You also opened two games to entertain yourself while working on a large, boring file. After a while, the Word file stopped responding and did not allow you to enter any text. How can you get around this problem?
A. Open Task Manager, locate the MS Word application, and click End Task.
B. Open System Monitor and try to find out the reason for the problem.
C. Save the file, close it, and open it again.
D. Restart the computer.Answer A is correct. You can use the Task Manager to end an application that is responding. When the application is not responding, you will not be able to save any work or close the file you are working on.
32. One of the Windows XP Professional computers in your small workgroup is configured as a print server. Users are complaining that it takes a long time to get their documents printed, and the print server seems to have become very slow in recent weeks. You now wish to gather performance data on this print server and analyze it whenever you get a chance later in the week. Which of the following options will help you accomplish your goal?
A. Open Task Manager to monitor the performance of the print server.
B. Use System Monitor to analyze the performance of the print server.
C. Use Performance console and use counter logs to collect performance data.
D. Use Performance Alerts to generate and send you a network message when the print server slows down.Answer C is correct. The Performance Logs and Alerts snap-in is used to collect performance data for selected counters so that it can be analyzed at a later time. The Task Manager and System Monitor show real-time performance data.
33. You are now looking at the following performance log data collected in a text file during the past week.
Processor: %Processor Time-60%
Memory: Pages/sec-12
Physical Disk: %Disk Time-75%
Logical Disk: %Free Space-56%
Which of the following actions should remove the bottleneck in system performance?A. Add a second CPU.
B. Add more RAM.
C. Replace the hard disk with a faster one.
D. Create one more logical partition.Answer C is correct. A value of more than 50 percent of disk time for the physical disk object indicates that the hard disk is slower than expected and is the bottleneck. You should replace the currently installed hard disk with a faster hard disk.
34. You have enabled auditing for object access on file servers where you suspected that some unauthorized users were attempting to access confidential files. In which of the following Event Viewer logs should you look for auditing entries?
A. Application logs
B. Security logs
C. System logs
D. DNS logsAnswer B is correct. Auditing events are written to the security logs. Depending on the events for which you enabled auditing, you should look for entries in security logs to find out unauthorized logons.
35. You took over as the network administrator for a small company last week. While checking security and system logs for one of the file servers, you notice that no entries were written to the logfiles after you took over. What could be the reason?
A. The logs are configured to overwrite events as needed.
B. The logs are configured not to overwrite events.
C. The logs are configured to clear events on the last day of every week.
D. The logs are configured to overwrite events older than seven days.Answer B is correct. When the event logs are configured not to overwrite events, the logfiles must be cleared manually. Otherwise, no new entries are written to the logfiles when the file reaches its configured size.
36. A new application installed on a database server in your office is dependent on a service that is installed with the application. The application and its associated service worked well for a week, and then started causing trouble. Users report that the application freezes repeatedly. You suspect that the cause of the problem is failure of the service. You want to get notified immediately if the service stops, so that you can diagnose the problem. How can you configure the service?
A. Configure the recovery option for the service to run a script that will send you an email.
B. Configure a performance alert for the service.
C. Use Task Manager to monitor the application and the service on the database server.
D. Ask a user to send you an email immediately after the application freezes.
Answer A is correct. The recovery options in the Properties dialog box of the service can be configured to run a program when the service fails. This program can be a script that will send you an email notifying you that the service has failed on the database server.37. You want Jim to take care of backing up data on one of the file servers but do not want to grant him excessive permissions on the file server. Which of the following is your best option?
A. Make Jim a member of Administrators group.
B. Make Jim a member of Power Users group.
C. Make Jim a member of Backup Operators group.
D. Make Jim a member of Server Operators group.Answer C is correct. To enable Jim to back up files and directories, you should make him a member of Backup Operators group. There is no need to make him a member of Administrators group because this will grant him more than the required permissions on the file server.
38. You took a full backup of the file server in your office last Friday night and then took incremental backups on Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday nights. Today is Thursday and you have taken a differential backup just before installing a new, faster hard disk on the server. After the new hard disk is installed, you find that the server has crashed and you will have to restore the data from backups. Which of the following backup sets will restore the complete data on the file server using minimum tapes?
A. Full backup and Wednesday's incremental backup
B. Full backup and Thursday's differential backup
C. Full backup and incremental backups taken on Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday
D. Just the differential backup taken on ThursdayAnswer B is correct. The full backup taken on Friday night along with the differential backup taken on Thursday will restore complete up-to-date data on the file server. The differential backup contains all data that has changed after the last full backup.
39. After installing a new network adapter in one of your test computers, you find that the system boots but stops responding after you log on. Which of the following advanced boot options can help you resolve the problem? Select two answers.
A. Safe Mode
B. Safe Mode with Networking
C. Last Known Good Configuration
D. Recovery Console
E. Directory Services Restore ModeAnswers A and D are correct. You can boot the system in Safe Mode and remove the driver for the new network adapter. You can also use the Recovery Console to resolve the problem. Safe Mode with Networking will not work because the network adapter is causing the problem. The Last Known Good Configuration is useful only if you have not logged on to the system after making configuration changes.
40. You have not installed the Recovery Console on your Windows XP Professional computer. Is there a way to use the Recovery Console without installing it if the system develops a serious problem at a later date?
A. Yes, the Recovery Console is installed by default when the OS is installed.
B. No, you must install the Recovery Console before you can use it.
C. Yes, the Startup And Recovery options in System Properties actually include the Recovery Console.
D. Yes, the Recovery Console can be started from the Windows XP Professional setup CD-ROM.Answer D is correct. You can start the Recovery Console from the Windows XP Professional setup CD-ROM by selecting the Repair option at the Welcome screen. You need not install the Recovery Console in order to use it.
41. You increased the screen resolution of your desktop to maximum and shut down the system for the day. The next morning the system did not boot at all. How can you resolve the problem?
A. Reinstall Windows XP Professional.
B. Start the system in VGA mode and change the resolution.
C. Use Recovery Console to remove the display adapter driver.
D. Do nothing. Restart the system two to three times and the problem will be fixed automatically.Answer B is correct. The VGA mode starts the system in a very basic graphics mode, and you can change the screen resolution to the previous working one. Usually, the system will not allow you to change the resolution to one that is not supported by the display adapter.
42. You are in charge of networking in a very small office that has only 12 Windows XP Professional computers. Only one of the computers is connected to the network, and your manager wants you to configure all computers in such a way that everyone can share the Internet connection. Which of the following IP address ranges will be used in the network once you have configured the Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) on the computer connected to the Internet?
A. 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.0.255
B. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.255
C. 172.16.0.1 to 172.31.255.255
D. 10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.255Answer A is correct. When ICS is enabled in a workgroup environment, the computer hosting the ICS service runs as a DHCP server also and allocates IP addresses in the range 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.0.255. It assigns the first address 192.168.0.1 for itself. The address range given in Answer B is used in the automatic private IP addressing (APIPA).
43. You are setting up a small network for a branch office of your company. The office will have a proxy server that will serve as a gateway to the Internet for all other computers in the network. You want to use an IP address range that will not conflict with the IP addresses on the Internet. The number of computers in the branch office will never be more than 100. Which of the following IP address ranges should you use for this office?
A. 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.0.255
B. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.255
C. 172.16.0.1 to 172.31.255.255
D. 10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.255Answer A is correct. Since the number of computers in the branch office will never be more than 100, you can easily use the private IP addresses in class C address range. Although you can use the IP addresses given in answers C and D, it is wise to use the smallest range of addresses whenever possible.
44. You have been asked to analyze a slow connection from your office to one of the branch offices located in another city. Which of the following commands will let you analyze where the data packets that are traveling to and from your computers are being lost on the network path?
A. Ping
B. Pathping
C. Ipconfig
D. TracertAnswer B is correct. Pathping is a TCP/IP troubleshooting utility that helps in finding out the loss of packets on the network path from one location to another. Ping is used to check connectivity, while Tracert is used to trace the route taken by the data packets from one network to another.
45. Even after you configured strong Password Policies in your network and set the appropriate NTFS permissions on company files, you notice that users keep guessing other accounts and passwords to access files that they are not supposed to. What else could you configure in Local Security Policy to prevent users from guessing passwords of authorized users? Select three answers.
A. Enable the Password Complexity Requirements Policy.
B. Ask authorized users to use strong passwords.
C. Set the Account Lockout Policies.
D. Enable auditing for logon events.
E. Disable network access for the file server from the network.Answers B, C, and D are correct. In order to protect confidential files from unauthorized access and stop unauthorized users from attempting to guess passwords of authorized users, you should enable the auditing of logon events to the file server, ask authorized users to use strong passwords, and set the Account Lockout Policies.
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